This is a semantic question, but I want to get a feel for what you guys think.

  • rufus@discuss.tchncs.de
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    5
    ·
    edit-2
    11 months ago

    Because the second paragraph of the article says it could not be established that anyone was speeding at all?

    • Thann@lemmy.mlOP
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      1
      arrow-down
      5
      ·
      edit-2
      11 months ago

      what? youre talking about the joemygod(dot)com article?
      its pretty biased and if you read the pdf you can search for Zwonitzer: you can find tons of examples of biden bragging about having the classified material. So its pretty well-established that joe had the info and knew he had the info. so he broke the law.

      • Big P@feddit.uk
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        6
        ·
        11 months ago

        So really the question should be “if you are alleged to have been speeding, but some people are reporting that there is no evidence that you were speeding and some others are saying that source is biased - did you break the law?”

        • Thann@lemmy.mlOP
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          1
          arrow-down
          3
          ·
          11 months ago

          So youre suggesting that if someone says I wasn’t speeding we should disregard the audio tape of me bragging about speeding?